2 Tim 3:16 applies to what?

[Rella]

2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

There are so many disagreements between what people read and understand based on what is an alleged original language..... Koine Greek, Aramaic, even Hebrew...

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to???????????????????????????????????/

 

[Mr GLee]

2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

There are so many disagreements between what people read and understand based on what is an alleged original language..... Koine Greek, Aramaic, even Hebrew...

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to???????????????????????????????????/

The tongue of God. When he spoke in Acts everyone heard him in thier own language.

 

[JIM]

2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

There are so many disagreements between what people read and understand based on what is an alleged original language..... Koine Greek, Aramaic, even Hebrew...

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to???????????????????????????????????/

I think what you are troubled with is the distinction between the original text as produced by God's divinely inspired authors, none of which we actually have today, and what we do have now by way of the translations/interpretations.

I believe that 2 Timothy 3:16 pertains specifically to the original text.

There is a whole field of study pertaining to establishing what that original text was. I think there is no one translation today for which it can be said that it is a 100% correct translation of that original text. But I do think that we have, at least among the English translations, sufficient confidence in accuracy to correctly understand what God wants us to know, understand and believe.

And that is what I think 2 Timothy 3:16 pertains to.

 

[atpollard]

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to?

When Paul wrote to Timothy (remember it was a LETTER before it was a BIBLE) Paul was probably talking about the OT. The NT wasn't written yet (at least not all of it) and was not generally recognized as Scripture (although it very quickly was). So Paul probably meant (and Timothy probably understood) the OT as the meaning of that verse.

 

[atpollard]

There are so many disagreements between what people read and understand based on what is an alleged original language..... Koine Greek, Aramaic, even Hebrew...

Naw ... that's not what people are really disagreeing over. That's the SYMPTOM, not the CAUSE.

 

[Carbon]

2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

There are so many disagreements between what people read and understand based on what is an alleged original language..... Koine Greek, Aramaic, even Hebrew...

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to???????????????????????????????????/

I believe it means exactly what it says. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

What difference would any language mean?

 

[Rella]

I believe it means exactly what it says. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Exactly.... however~ not everyone sees or understands the same in studying " for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"

What difference would any language mean?

 

[Rella]

I believe it means exactly what it says. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

What difference would any language mean?

The differences would mean that not every word is translatable into every language.

That is true today and is obviously tru translating from old times to now.

I mean... other then the bottom line of $$$$$$$... what possible reason could there be for all the translations that have been conjured up in the myriad of bibles that if we pick a verse and check Bible hub... The may seemingly say the same thing... but technically not all necessarily have the same meaning.

I have 2 Greek Interlinears and I think 2, might be 3 translations of the Peshitta.

They are not the same in every case.

 

[Soldier of Christ1516]

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to???????????????????????????????????/

One of the things I love about Scripture is its universal appeal. I believe all of it pertains to all languages.

None of it can be fully understood without the Holy Spirit.

 

[Rella]

One of the things I love about Scripture is its universal appeal. I believe all of it pertains to all languages.

None of it can be fully understood without the Holy Spirit.

I agree. BUT

If you have not noticed the diversity of understandings on the forums, you must not read very much here.

And beliving the Holy Spirit is the instrument of understanding.... then how can that be.

Do you believe that all of those participating here do not carry the HS within themselves?... or do you believe He is silent to the majority?

If the later why.

No proof. Never read anywhere but will start looking into this... When YAHWEH confounded the langusage at Tower od Babel... I believe he modified His original plan..... on the world, life and humanity.

OR possibly that was waiting in the wings until the appropriate time He knew would be coming once Adam let Eve bat her eyes and he bit that apple or whatever fruit it was.

Now the assorted languages and understanding are because we are being kept apart due to divine design and that the correctness of one over the other is nought because we all, if in Christ , are correct.

 

[JIM]

I agree. BUT

If you have not noticed the diversity of understandings on the forums, you must not read very much here.

And beliving the Holy Spirit is the instrument of understanding.... then how can that be.

The Holy Spirit is the instrument of understanding, but only in the sense that it is through the divine revelation given to the authors of the scriptures. His indwelling is not a source of personal knowledge apart from scripture as some would claim; that claim being the doctrine of illumination. But the doctrine of illumination is a false doctrine proven to be so by those very people who claim to be illuminated personally and directly by the Holy Spirit and yet do not agree among themselves. The indwelling Holy Spirit is a helper. He can, if requested, aid in many ways in our lives. One of those ways being in our study of the scriptures.

Anyone claiming to have been personally and directly taught the truth, spoken to or illuminated by the Holy Spirit are deceiving themselves.

 

[Bob Carabbio]

2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

There are so many disagreements between what people read and understand based on what is an alleged original language..... Koine Greek, Aramaic, even Hebrew...

What language does 2 Tim 3:16 pertain to???????????????????????????????????/

The language of the person to whom the INSPIRATION was given, of course.

 

[Soldier of Christ1516]

I agree. BUT

If you have not noticed the diversity of understandings on the forums, you must not read very much here.

And beliving the Holy Spirit is the instrument of understanding.... then how can that be.

Do you believe that all of those participating here do not carry the HS within themselves?... or do you believe He is silent to the majority?

That’s a big BUT.

I don’t want to cast dispersions on the sincerity of anyone’s faith in the real world. I tend to take people at face value.

In an online forum, only electrons pass back and forth. Participants tend to wax philosophically in defense of doctrine for what else can we do online?

Not all are equally talented at defending the faith. Did I ever tell you about my grandmothers? Both were devout Catholics for over 75 years each. Theologians, they weren’t.

I started a thread regarding evidence to be seen. It was moved from Apologetics to Testimonies. My intent was to focus on OBJECTIVE evidence, which I take it as 180 degrees opposite of a testimony, where it all depends on the believability of the witness.

I hope this answers your questions.

 

[Carbon]

The Holy Spirit is the instrument of understanding, but only in the sense that it is through the divine revelation given to the authors of the scriptures. His indwelling is not a source of personal knowledge apart from scripture as some would claim; that claim being the doctrine of illumination. But the doctrine of illumination is a false doctrine proven to be so by those very people who claim to be illuminated personally and directly by the Holy Spirit and yet do not agree among themselves. The indwelling Holy Spirit is a helper. He can, if requested, aid in many ways in our lives. One of those ways being in our study of the scriptures.

Anyone claiming to have been personally and directly taught the truth, spoken to or illuminated by the Holy Spirit are deceiving themselves.

Since scripture teaches we are born of the Spirit, I must disagree with that false teaching

 

[JIM]

Since scripture teaches we are born of the Spirit, I must disagree with that false teaching

It should be obvious to you if there is anyone you have come across who like you says he was born of the Spirit and yet disagrees with you since you were born of the Spirit. How is it that two people who have been personally and directly taught by the Holy Spirit could contradict one another?

 

[Carbon]

It should be obvious to you if there is anyone you have come across who like you says he was born of the Spirit and yet disagrees with you since you were born of the Spirit. How is it that two people who have been personally and directly taught by the Holy Spirit could contradict one another?

Obviously because one does not understand scripture teaching on this.

 

[JIM]

Obviously because one does not understand scripture teaching on this.

But according to you the Holy Spirit is teaching both personally and directly. It has nothing to do with scripture teaching.

 

[Rella]

The language of the person to whom the INSPIRATION was given, of course.

Well would seem Berlitz did a number in messing up translations

 

[Eleanor]

I believe it means exactly what it says. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

What difference would any language mean?

Keeping in mind the word there is "God-breathed," i.e., theopnuestos.