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The Propitiation/Expiation Only Debate

Arial

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The debate is over the Greek word hilas and whether it should ever be translated "propitiate" but instead be translated "expiate". Expiate means the removal of sins, while propitiate means satisfaction of wrath.

C.H. Dodd argued for expiation only and is the most influential figure behind the push to exclude propitiation. He argued that hilas words mean the removal of sin, not satisfaction of wrath.

“The conception of propitiation is wholly foreign to the biblical conception of God.”
C. H. Dodd, The Bible and the Greeks (1935)

“ἱλάσκεσθαι means not ‘to propitiate’ but ‘to expiate,’ that is, to remove sin.”
C. H. Dodd, The Apostolic Preaching and Its Developments

Dodd believed propitiation implied pagan appeasement and therefore must be rejected.

If you agree: why?
If you disagree: why?

Put forth theological arguments.
 
The debate is over the Greek word hilas and whether it should ever be translated "propitiate" but instead be translated "expiate". Expiate means the removal of sins, while propitiate means satisfaction of wrath.

C.H. Dodd argued for expiation only and is the most influential figure behind the push to exclude propitiation. He argued that hilas words mean the removal of sin, not satisfaction of wrath.

“The conception of propitiation is wholly foreign to the biblical conception of God.”
C. H. Dodd, The Bible and the Greeks (1935)

“ἱλάσκεσθαι means not ‘to propitiate’ but ‘to expiate,’ that is, to remove sin.”
C. H. Dodd, The Apostolic Preaching and Its Developments

Dodd believed propitiation implied pagan appeasement and therefore must be rejected.

If you agree: why?
If you disagree: why?

Put forth theological arguments.
I believe it is just the liberals who separate the word. So, from my understanding there is no expiate. They both mean the same.
 
I believe it is just the liberals who separate the word. So, from my understanding there is no expiate. They both mean the same.
If I may elaborate. The correct translation would be propitiate as the contexts in which it appears are dealing with the wrath of God. It is because of the propitiating work of Christ on the cross that sins can be expiated. And the only way.
 
“The conception of propitiation is wholly foreign to the biblical conception of God.”
C. H. Dodd, The Bible and the Greeks (1935)
This suggests to me that Dodd was imposing his own preferred view of God onto the translative work.
 
Is it can be expiated or actually is expiated ?
The believer's sin is actually propitiated by the work of Christ. It satisfies God's just wrath against our (the believer) sin through his substitution for us and his paying the ransom price. The sin is removed (expiated) because God's wrath has been propitiated. Christ bore it himself on his body, becoming the blood of propitiation. The sacrifice. It is Temple language---what the old temple system represented.
 
The believer's sin is actually propitiated by the work of Christ.
Was it b4 they believed?
. It satisfies God's just wrath against our (the believer) sin through his substitution for us and his paying the ransom price. The sin is removed (expiated) because God's wrath has been propitiated.
Was it a true fact b4 the believed?
 
Was it b4 they believed?
Jesus did the work before they believed. His work was not applied to them until they did believe.
Was it a true fact b4 the believed?
Of course. But they were born in Adam just like everyone else and in need of rescuing. They had to be born again by the Spirit in order to enter the kingdom.

Don't change the subject
 
Jesus did the work before they believed. His work was not applied to them until they did believe.
So why wasnt it effectual for them b4 they believed, or why wasn't
it applied to them b4 they believed? Wasn't God satisfied with what Christ did for them b4 they believed?


Of course. But they were born in Adam just like everyone else and in need of rescuing.

So did God hold them guilty for what they were in adam, sinners even after Christ satisfied for all their sins and sinfulness in adam and themselves?
 
So why wasnt it effectual for them b4 they believed, or why wasn't
it applied to them b4 they believed? Wasn't God satisfied with what Christ did for them b4 they believed?
Because we are saved through faith, not osmosis. Faith is the means. The subject is the debate between propitiation/expiation. Not how or when we were saved. You are still trying to hijack the thread.
So did God hold them guilty for what they were in adam, sinners even after Christ satisfied for all their sins and sinfulness in adam and themselves?
Yes. Because they are guilty. The subject is the debate between propitiation/expiation. You are trying to hijack the thread.
 
I believe it is just the liberals who separate the word. So, from my understanding there is no expiate. They both mean the same.

From my understanding, both propitiate and expiate are intended. The problem is that ἱλασμός (hilasmos) carries a semantic range that includes both the removal of our sin and guilt (expiation) and the turning away of divine wrath (propitiation). Koine Greek can hold those together in a single term; Modern English cannot. That is why this controversy exists: Translators and theologians debate which English gloss best captures the term in a given context.
 
Dodd believed propitiation implied pagan appeasement and should be rejected on that basis. The revised Standard Version Committee was influenced by Dodd and the theological shift showed up in translation decisions. the RSV translated Romans 3:24 as "expiation" instead of propitiation.

The NRSV hedges by using phrasing that can support either view. ---whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood." The NIV, CBS, and NET do the same, and the theology is moved from the text into footnotes. Instead of "Does this text say wrath is satisfied?" they choose "How can we translate this so both sides can live with it?"

What is lost in the main text is:
explicit mention of wrath​
clear judicial resolution​
the Godward aspect of the cross​
All that remains is:
sacrifice​
forgiveness​
cleansing​
While what remains is true it is incomplete without propitiation and a crucial element of the work of Christ at the cross is never seen or grasped. There becomes something of his person that "expiation only" hides from being known of Christ.

As to Dodd's claim that propitiation implied pagan appeasement, John Stott had this to say on hilasterion. "God himself gave himself to save us from himself." and:
“The concept of propitiation cannot be eliminated from the New Testament without serious loss.”
John Stott, The Cross of Christ
And famously:

“The essence of sin is man substituting himself for God, while the essence of salvation is God substituting himself for man.”
 
I would say we are saved through Christ, and God given Faith gives evidence and assurance of that.
By Christ, through faith.

Where do you stand on the propitiation/expiation only debate?
 
By Christ, through faith.
No by Christ alone, then given the Gift of Faith to come into the knowledge of it that it was Christ alone
Where do you stand on the propitiation/expiation only debate?

I believe Christs death alone propitiated God for the sins of the elect, His death expiated their legal guilt. Hence, He is said to have purged our sins Heb 1:3

Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
The word purged katharismos:

  1. a cleansing, purification, a ritual purgation or washing
    1. of the washing of the Jews before and after their meals
    2. of levitical purification of women after childbirth
    3. a cleansing from the guilt of sins wrought by the expiatory sacrifice of Christ

So God is propitiated towards all the elect for whom Christ died because His death was an expiatory sacrifice.

His sacrifice propitated God and freed the elect from guilt, and this b4 faith
 
No by Christ alone, then given the Gift of Faith to come into the knowledge of it that it was Christ alone


I believe Christs death alone propitiated God for the sins of the elect, His death expiated their legal guilt. Hence, He is said to have purged our sins Heb 1:3

Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
The word purged katharismos:

  1. a cleansing, purification, a ritual purgation or washing
    1. of the washing of the Jews before and after their meals
    2. of levitical purification of women after childbirth
    3. a cleansing from the guilt of sins wrought by the expiatory sacrifice of Christ

So God is propitiated towards all the elect for whom Christ died because His death was an expiatory sacrifice.

His sacrifice propitated God and freed the elect from guilt, and this b4 faith
Christ's sacrifice on the cross was propitiatory.
Because he was our substitute.
Gave himself as ransom for our deliverance.
Which expiated our sins having satisfied God's wrath against them.

Christ is the propitiation. "He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world."
1 John 2:2

IOW Because Christ's sacrifice in our place satisfied God's wrath towards our sins. our sins are removed. His righteousness is counted as our own and we are declared justified. It is all courtroom language. It is judicial. That we are sentenced to the wrath of God for sin is judicial. It is the judgement of the King. That Christ became the substitute, ransom, and propitiator, is judicial and satisfied the wrath of God against us. That Christ's righteousness is imputed to us, is judicial. That we are justified, is judicial.
 
Christ's sacrifice on the cross was propitiatory.
Because he was our substitute.
Gave himself as ransom for our deliverance.
Which expiated our sins having satisfied God's wrath against them.

Christ is the propitiation. "He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world."
1 John 2:2

IOW Because Christ's sacrifice in our place satisfied God's wrath towards our sins. our sins are removed. His righteousness is counted as our own and we are declared justified. It is all courtroom language. It is judicial. That we are sentenced to the wrath of God for sin is judicial. It is the judgement of the King. That Christ became the substitute, ransom, and propitiator, is judicial and satisfied the wrath of God against us. That Christ's righteousness is imputed to us, is judicial. That we are justified, is judicial.
I agree with this post, it speaks of the legal judicial phase of salvation
 
“Dodd’s position cannot be maintained. The idea of the wrath of God is fundamental to Paul’s argument, and the removal of sin cannot be isolated from the turning away of wrath.”

“In the biblical sense, propitiation means the removal of God’s wrath by the offering of a sacrifice.”

“The death of Christ does something objective with respect to God, not merely subjective with respect to man.”

(Leon Morris, The Apostolic Preaching of the Cross)
 
We are dealing with the hilask- word family, a collection of terms that occupy a single semantic field:
  • hilasmos (ἱλασμός) a noun denoting an atoning sacrifice or means of atonement,
  • hilaskomai (ἱλάσκομαι), a verb meaning to make atonement or to appease, and
  • hilastērion (ἱλαστήριον), a noun referring to the place or means of atonement (e.g., Heb 9:5).
What often causes confusion is that English theological debate has fixated on hilastērion in Romans 3:25, then retrojected that debate onto hilasmos. And yet the semantic field is the same: these terms concern atonement conceived as a Godward action that deals with sin and its consequences, not just moral cleansing in abstraction (expiation alone). Paul is explaining how God remains just while justifying the ungodly. The problem, crucially, is divine forbearance: God had “passed over former sins,” a restraint that creates a judicial tension. If sins go unpunished, then God’s justice is called into question.

Propitiation is Paul’s answer to that problem. He argues that Christ himself is that hilastērion—not simply the agent of propitiation but the very locus where wrath is dealt with—deliberately evoking the mercy seat that was sprinkled with atoning blood on the Day of Atonement. The background is unambiguously Levitical and cultic, where we see that blood was offered to avert divine wrath by satisfying God’s justice. It pointed forward to the cross of Christ which functions covenantally as life-for-life satisfaction under divine justice. Christ is the true Lamb whose blood turns aside divine wrath from those for whom it was shed.

Cognate terms appear in Hebrews 2:17, 1 John 2:2 and 4:10, where Christ’s atoning work is explicitly described as propitiatory. In each case, God is the object, sin under judgment is the problem, and deliverance from wrath is the result. The cross is thus forensic and public, God’s clearest and most personal demonstration that sin is judged and mercy is dispensed without injustice.

This is why expiation-only readings fail. Cleansing language alone cannot account for verse 26: “so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.” If the cross only removes sin as defilement, the question of justice remains unanswered. Sin would be removed but not judged. In such a picture, how could God be the justifier, much less just? The judicial tension Paul identified would persist.

John Owen identified four necessary elements of any true propitiation: (1) an offence to be taken away, (2) a person offended who needs to be pacified, (3) a guilty offending person, and (4) a sacrificial means by which the offence is answered. His framework aligns precisely with Paul’s argument. God is the offended party; sin is a real offence; sinners are truly guilty; and satisfaction must be rendered. The cross is not God arbitrarily changing his posture toward sin but judging it in the Substitute in a manner consistent with his own righteous and loving nature.

Detach Romans 3:25-26 from propitiation and Paul’s argument falls apart. Without wrath answered, righteousness demonstrated, and justice upheld, justification becomes a legal fiction. Paul will not allow that. Neither should we.
 
“Dodd’s position cannot be maintained. The idea of the wrath of God is fundamental to Paul’s argument, and the removal of sin cannot be isolated from the turning away of wrath.”

“In the biblical sense, propitiation means the removal of God’s wrath by the offering of a sacrifice.”

“The death of Christ does something objective with respect to God, not merely subjective with respect to man.”

(Leon Morris, The Apostolic Preaching of the Cross)
So are the elect objectively saved from Gods wrath b4 they are regenerated and subjectively believe ?
 
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