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If it's True That Justification by Faith ...

That is another incorrect premise upon which you've built your position. I believe I can and will walk out my door today and not die, and I have faith that belief is true and correct and I act in a manner consistent with both the belief and the faith I possess.

Merely disputing my position does not disprove what I posted. Nor does it prove your own. Scripture actually states, "justified by faith," but nowhere do we find "justified by belief." Even if we were to infer the latter from some exegetical analysis of what scripture implies..... the explicit always has greater veracity over the implicit. Exegetically speaking, the explicit always defines the implicit, never the other way around.

That is incorrect. Etymologically both words can be nouns and both words can be conjugated as verbs. That statement is foolish. It has no basis in fact. A selective use of scripture does not change the facts of reality. If you haven't already read it, give D. A. Carson's "Exegetical Fallacies" a read. He addresses these kinds of appeals.

Well, it has already been demonstrated on multiple occasions by multiple posters that your exegesis is lacking. You often make verse says things they do not actually state. The word "truck" is a noun, but it is also a verb. If I were to say, "Keep on trucking," I might mean any number of things that are completely unrelated to anyone actually in possess of a noun truck. Your use of 2 Tes. 2:13 is dubious because many translations translate pistis as "faith," and not "belief." What you've just done is appeal to a selective use of preferred translation and not what the verse actually states. The KJV, for example, translates that pistis as "belief" but it does so unnecessarily and in error. The modern translations that have some allegiance to the KJV tradition do likewise. It is demonstrably more consistent with the whole of the New Testament to translate that pistis as "faith." Having preferred a selective appeal to translation, the net result is the undermining of your position, not the proving of it.

BSB
But we should always thank God for you, brothers who are loved by the Lord, because God chose you from the beginning to be saved by the sanctification of the Spirit and by faith in the truth.

BLB
But we ought to give thanks to God always concerning you, brothers beloved by the Lord, that God has chosen you from the beginning unto salvation in the sanctification of the Spirit, and by faith of the truth;

NAS
But we should always give thanks to God for you, brothers and sisters beloved by the Lord, because God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth.

NET
But we ought to thank God always for you, brothers and sisters loved by the Lord, because God chose you from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth.

The same is even more so regarding Romans 3:26. Greek trumps English every time and if we were reading Greek we would read "faith," "pistis," and not belief. We would not read a different word over the majority usage any more than we would read a different meaning over the ordinary usage. These are all foundational mistakes that are easily avoided. Those appeals to 2 Thes. 2 and Rom 3 could have and should have been checked and verified before it was posted and that did not happen. Then, as a result of the unverified being posted, I follow up and investigate it where you did not, and find the statement incorrect and the argument fallacious.

There is also two other linguistic errors in Post 238. Salvation is not synonymous with justification (unless you are RCC and that would be a matter of RCC doctrine, not scripture) and "by" and "through" are not synonymous, either. We are saved through faith. We are justified by faith. Nowhere does scripture ever state anyone is saved by faith. The Rom. 3:26 text is proof of what I just posted. These terms are not identical, synonymous, or interchangeable.

Therefore, what we see in the case you're asserting is numerous conflations; numerous examples of different words with different meanings being asserted as if they are synonymous or interchangeable. This is especially true for occasions of causality which, so far, you've addressed fairly accurately. Faith does not cause salvation. Faith does not cause justification. The cause of salvation is God's grace and the cause of justification is Christ's work on Calvary first and the commensurate work of God in the life of the regenerate to believe and then have faith he or she can act upon faithfully.

The facts in evidence prove otherwise. The dissent is rife with eisegesis and fallacy.

And, for the record, my points are not being addressed. They're being avoided with non sequiturs, red herrings, factual errors, and other fallacious responses. Just a little bit of investigation would have prevented Post 238. A better response to Post posts 231, 232, 237, and everything else I've posted is warranted. Delve into scripture first, scripture alone, and endeavor to be just as skeptical and critical of extra-biblical sourced arguments as you are of my posts. I have endeavored to post scripture, not doctrine. I delved into the text as written using the ordinary meaning of the words in normal usage as understood by the first century author and his first century readers. I went further into the language to understand first century usage of the terms instead of modern doctrinal definitions. I endeavored to form my doctrines from scripture, not make scripture say what my doctrines dictate. As a consequence, my posts have, so far, withstood the criticism brought upon them.

And, for the record, disproving something I posted does not prove your alternative. And, for the record, even if one or two of my points were disproven there are at least a dozen errors in the case you've presented. Refuting one or two of them still leaves the case problematic. Post 238 was easily avoidable and the fact it was posted evidences something other than rigorous exegesis and reason.

Would you like me to go through my posts and make a list of all the points I believe need either further clarification or correction? Rather than having to go backwards and address this post on page 3 and another post on page 10, it might be helpful to take a moment to review the alternative case and real or perceived problems in what you have posted. I don't mind doing that work (it'll have to wait until later today or tomorrow because I'll be leaving for work soon, but I will gladly do so to summarize my viewpoints). Just let me know.
You can fight against all you want, Faith and believing are joined at the hip. It takes Faith to believe. Faith is made of the word verb peithō:
  1. persuade
    1. to persuade, i.e. to induce one by words to believe
    2. to make friends of, to win one's favour, gain one's good will, or to seek to win one, strive to please one
    3. to tranquillise
    4. to persuade unto i.e. move or induce one to persuasion to do something
  2. be persuaded
    1. to be persuaded, to suffer one's self to be persuaded; to be induced to believe: to have faith: in a thing
      1. to believe
      2. to be persuaded of a thing concerning a person
    2. to listen to, obey, yield to, comply with

In fact Faith is even considered an act of obedience Heb 11:8
8 By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went.
Obedience to the Faith or the obedience of Faith Rom 16:26


But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:

So please be careful with this Justification before God by your faith, it can easily be construed to be advocating Justification before God based on your obeying, and not solely based on Christs obeying for you and Justifying you b4 God
 
What do you not understand?
Why it is you don't understand. Why it is you feel the need to repeat already-posted content and ignore the scriptural alternative, preferring post-canonical doctrinal sources. Why it is you suddenly feel the need to make the discussion personal when it is not. Oh, and the constitution of dark matter. I don't understand that 😏.
 
You can fight against all you want,
You can fight against it all you want.
In fact Faith is even considered an act of obedience Heb 11:8
8 By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went.
Obedience to the Faith or the obedience of Faith Rom 16:26
Two more examples of an abject failure correctly understanding what is stated, how to properly exegete scripture, and avoiding the salient point and answer questions asked.

Faith and faithfulness are not identical. Faith, as has already been posted, is a type of trust in what a person believes that necessarily entails commitment to that belief (especially when it is inconvenient or difficult to do so) and actions demonstrating that faith's existence. Abraham acted on his faith, and he was faithful. He acted on his faith and acted in a manner consistent with that faith. Faith begets faithfulness. Faith begets (good) works. Abraham's obedience was not to his faith (as Post 241 asserts). Abraham's obedience was to God's command. That obedience to the command was predicated upon his faith in God and his faith in God's promises.

Romans 4:13-16
For the promise to Abraham or to his descendants that he would be heir of the world was not through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if those who are of the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified; for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation. For this reason, it is by faith, in order that it may be in accordance with grace, so that the promise will be guaranteed to all the descendants, not only to those who are of the Law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all,

Galatians 3:18
For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise.

You previously argued faith is not a work that justifies but here you are posting faith is considered an act of obedience to faith! Faith is an act of obedience. Obedience to faith is interchangeable with obedience of faith. This is another example of incorrect conflation.

To make matters worse, as was the case with the last post, (Post 238), these mistakes are avoidable with just a little critical thinking and a little reliance on what is explicitly stated in scripture rather than what theologians (or individuals who ignore both) make scripture say.
 
Why it is you don't understand. Why it is you feel the need to repeat already-posted content and ignore the scriptural alternative, preferring post-canonical doctrinal sources. Why it is you suddenly feel the need to make the discussion personal when it is not.
"Post canonical doctrinal sources?"

You're gonna' have to tell me what that is and why you think it.
That is incorrect. There was no NT when Paul wrote his epistles.
It's not about Paul. . .it's about the meaning of "justify, justification" as we see it used in the NT; i.e., to make or declare right(eous).

Oh, and the constitution of dark matter. I don't understand that 😏.
Are you referring to "dark sayings" in Nu 12:6-8? That means riddles, not spoken clearly, hidden (dark) meanings (sayings); i.e., prophecy.
 
"Post canonical doctrinal sources?"

You're gonna' have to tell me what that is and why you think it.
Scripture is not the Bible. Scripture is God's revelation to humanity in its original form. That is why the inerrancy of scripture has nothing to do with the Bible.

The Bible is the manuscript record we have of God's original revelation.

The canon is the compilation of these documents that have been agreed upon as inspired by God in their original form. That is why Protestants do not include the apocrypha in their Bibles and Catholics do. This is why the book of Enoch, the gospel of Timothy, and other pseudepigraphic (books that lack provenance) books are not included in the Bible. The canon of scripture was not decided until the fifth century. Up until that point there was a lot of debate what belonged in the Bible and what did not. It was also during that time that most of Christianity's core doctrines got decided (like the divinity of Christ).

A "post-canonical" source would, therefore, be anything written after the fifth century. An extra-biblical source would be anything that is not the Bible. Something written by an ECF would be extra-biblical, or extra-scriptural. So would something written by Augustine, Aquinas, Calvin, or Sproul....... or anyone else who is not an author of scripture in the Bible. We all read works of commentary and theology. It is good, not bad, to do so. It is, however, bad to subject scripture to theological doctrine. Doctrine must be subordinate to and subject to scripture. Scripture alone is the authority over all doctrine.
It's not about Paul. . .it's about the meaning of "justify, justification" as we see it used in the NT; i.e., to make or declare right(eous).
That is just dumb.

The specific use of "justification" and "justification by faith" being discussed comes from Paul. Your argument is "Paul says 'X' but it's not about Paul." That's nonsense. Yes, we are discussing the meaning of justification and most of you got your definition from some book you read on the subject written long after the canon of scripture was closed and NONE of you bothered to consider the normal, ordinary usage of the word in the first century. It is not good practice to impose 21st century meaning on a first century author.

The word "fag" or "faggot" used to mean a stick in a fire, or one used to kindle a fire. It was also used to refer to any drudgery, or any exhausting labor. With the rise of organized public education the word referred to a younger males student who performed tasks of service for an olde student. Beginning in the 17th century the word began to be associated with sexual deviance (mostly females, not males) and only in modernity took on the meaning associated with homosexual males. During the middle of the last century the word was also used in reference to a cigarette.

Would you like to learn about the use of the word "negro"?

The meanings of words change. The word "dikaioo" meant something different in the first century than it does in the 21st century. It is wrong to impose a 21st century definition of the word onto scripture, even if that definition come from some well-respected author in some well-respected commentary or systemic theology book.
Are you referring to "dark sayings" in Nu 12:6-8? That means riddles, not spoken clearly, hidden (dark) meanings (sayings); i.e., prophecy.
No, I am not referring to Num. 12:6-8. I was making a joke. I was asked what it is I do not understand. In the current state of physics we understand a very, very small portion of the cosmos. We humans used to think outer space was empty and huge voids existed between planets but then some wise guy discovered there's a huge, gigantic pile of matter spread all around the universe, but we lack the ability to see it. It is called "dark matter." I do not understand dark matter. Neither do you. Nor does anyone else here. It is completely off topic.

Just like the question asking me what I do not understand is off topic.

Do you now understand why asking that question was foolish?
What do you not understand?
I do not understand why it is you think that is an intelligent question or why you think it has any place in this discussion. Stick to the subject at hand.
 
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