Evidence of Adding to Scripture?

[ChristB4us]

The Message Lost in Translation? <----- From the topic at this link regarding the question of 1 Corinthians 14:4 at post # 11

Scripture cannot go against scripture for why I have to wonder why Paul would write that verse in that way when afterwards, he says the one speaking in tongues has to pray that someone will interpret that tongue or else it will be unfruitful to himself since he does not understand it.

Although, I can see that Paul, in context was trying to show from the beginning of that chapter for why prophesy is better than tongues, there is that nagging question about someone, under Gnostic influence, may be adding to the scriptures and not just taking it away the message Paul meant to convey. They may be erring in principle and not in practice; as in not discerning the tongues for private use false teaching & practice in those days.

Could they have been responsible for adding 1 Corinthians 14:4 way back when? The annoyance is that this "line" is not true by itself when read in context for why I wonder why Paul say it like that when tongues does not edifies self since he does not understand it from verse 2?

There was a question about this reference below being added to scripture.

Matthew 27:52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

One site seemed to think it was meant to be poetic, ( highly doubtful ) while another site questioned it as not meaning that all O.T. saints were raised.

One site seemed to believe that the graves were opened because of the earthquakes, but that is it, thus ignoring verse 53.

That scriptural reference would explain why Paul was hearing of Christians that had their faith overthrown.

2 Timothy 2:18 Who concerning the truth have erred, saying that the resurrection is past already; and overthrow the faith of some.

BUT one site testify that no manuscripts has omitted those verses;

And yet we do have evidence of 1 John 5:7 about the 3 Witnesses in Heaven being removed from the original writings.

IS 1 JOHN 5:7 NOT IN ANY GREEK MANUSCRIPT BEFORE THE 1600S? IF IT IS TRUE, WHY IS IT IN THE KJV?

One would think that such a miracle would be reported if King David was risen from the dead. One would think a lot of Jews would be believing in Jesus Christ then.

But if they were raised at the same time Jesus had risen from the dead, why do we not hear of such testimonies from those who have witnessed His resurrection? One would think Matthew, Mark, Luke, & John would testify of Mary or Peter seeing some of the Old Testament saints in the four gospels.

But then again, would such a miraculous event explain why many Jews were not paying attention to the resurrection of Jesus Christ, but are in hiding, scared at what was happening and going into complete denial of the event altogether?

Then again, it could have been added to scripture in the hopes of persuading the Jews at that time not to believe when they knew it did not happen.

Are there any Biblical official grave sites of Old Testament saints missing their bodies?

There is no Biblical reasoning nor prophesy that I know of that the O.T. saints had to be raised at the time Jesus did. Jesus was risen in a glorified body that we will inherit one day when He returns in bringing us Home.

Paradise aka Abraham's bosom was originally located beneath the earth across that great gulf from hell but since His ascension, it is now located in Heaven per 2 Corinthians 12:1-4 KJV

So the souls of the O.T. saints are still in Paradise but now has been brought to Heaven by Jesus Christ as in leading the captive in captivity.

Since Jesus said this to His disciples;

John 14:1Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me. 2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. 3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.

Then I would assume that He has to prepare the same place for the Old Testament saints as a bridegroom would do for both of them.

So I assume the Old Testament saints were not raised in a glorified body as Jesus is as they are still awaiting for their inheritance in that city of God that Jesus is building since His ascension. It would explain this reference for when the Old Testament saints would be sitting down with the N.T. disciples at the Marriage Supper in Heaven as a bride received to her Home by the Bridegroom.

Luke 13:24 Strive to enter in at the strait gate: for many, I say unto you, will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. 25 When once the master of the house is risen up, and hath shut to the door, and ye begin to stand without, and to knock at the door, saying, Lord, Lord, open unto us; and he shall answer and say unto you, I know you not whence ye are: 26 Then shall ye begin to say, We have eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets. 27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity.

28 There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you yourselves thrust out. 29 And they shall come from the east, and from the west, and from the north, and from the south, and shall sit down in the kingdom of God. 30 And, behold, there are last which shall be first, and there are first which shall be last.

One could apply verse 30 as this reception & inheritance is done at the time of the pre great tribulation rapture event for both O.T. saints & N.T. disciples.

But this scripture below comes to mind.....

1 Corinthians 13;9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. 11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.

So if anyone has any clues or answers or suggestions to the mystery if Matthew 27:52-53 was added to scripture, feel free to share.

As for 1 Corinthians 14:4, by itself it is contrary to the rest of scriptures in that chapter for why I am suspecting it was added since tongue speakers are not actually being edified unless that tongue is interpreted to him by another. Until it is interpreted, and therefore he does not understand it, is why it is unfruitful and therefore doubting Paul had written that verse 4 at all.

 

[ChristB4us]

Here is a clue that those 2 verses were added to scripture by the reasoning of verse 54.

Matthew 27:50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. 51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.

The centurion and those that were with him, while watching Jesus having died and the earthquake had happened, could not have witnessed verses 52-53 since that event happened after the resurrection of Jesus Christ as stated in verse 53.

It is akin to a hiccup in the reading of the events for why it may serve as a clue that it was added to scripture.

There is no point to testify of that event in verses 52-53 when this was about Centurion and those with him, having seen Jesus died and the earthquake had happened at His crucifixion; not at nor after His resurrection.

By removing verses 52-53, we see no interruption in the reading of the event at His crucifixion. Indeed, there is no other example where a future event is cited as interjected in what is currently being read as happening.

I am open to correction or suggestions or clues to the contrary, but there it is.

 

[Mr GLee]

The answer to are you the King of the Jews? Jesus said .Those are your words It is as you say; so. Jesus had King of Jews in mind the father the King of kings and Lord of earthly lords. he confessed the Father words .


His crucifixion; is a signified picture, the gospel.No Literal fleshly body .His unseen work of resurrecting the dead . The Father empowering to Son of man Jesus to rise. Jesus said marvel not. . . . dying mankind must be born from above. It did not exclude his own self.. The gospel demonstration to the word he being first born from above of the spiritual unseen seed Christ the incorruptible

 

[EarlyActs]

The Message Lost in Translation? <----- From the topic at this link regarding the question of 1 Corinthians 14:4 at post # 11

Scripture cannot go against scripture for why I have to wonder why Paul would write that verse in that way when afterwards, he says the one speaking in tongues has to pray that someone will interpret that tongue or else it will be unfruitful to himself since he does not understand it.

Although, I can see that Paul, in context was trying to show from the beginning of that chapter for why prophesy is better than tongues, there is that nagging question about someone, under Gnostic influence, may be adding to the scriptures and not just taking it away the message Paul meant to convey. They may be erring in principle and not in practice; as in not discerning the tongues for private use false teaching & practice in those days.

Could they have been responsible for adding 1 Corinthians 14:4 way back when? The annoyance is that this "line" is not true by itself when read in context for why I wonder why Paul say it like that when tongues does not edifies self since he does not understand it from verse 2?

There was a question about this reference below being added to scripture.

Matthew 27:52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

One site seemed to think it was meant to be poetic, ( highly doubtful ) while another site questioned it as not meaning that all O.T. saints were raised.

One site seemed to believe that the graves were opened because of the earthquakes, but that is it, thus ignoring verse 53.

That scriptural reference would explain why Paul was hearing of Christians that had their faith overthrown.

2 Timothy 2:18 Who concerning the truth have erred, saying that the resurrection is past already; and overthrow the faith of some.

BUT one site testify that no manuscripts has omitted those verses;

And yet we do have evidence of 1 John 5:7 about the 3 Witnesses in Heaven being removed from the original writings.

IS 1 JOHN 5:7 NOT IN ANY GREEK MANUSCRIPT BEFORE THE 1600S? IF IT IS TRUE, WHY IS IT IN THE KJV?

One would think that such a miracle would be reported if King David was risen from the dead. One would think a lot of Jews would be believing in Jesus Christ then.

But if they were raised at the same time Jesus had risen from the dead, why do we not hear of such testimonies from those who have witnessed His resurrection? One would think Matthew, Mark, Luke, & John would testify of Mary or Peter seeing some of the Old Testament saints in the four gospels.

But then again, would such a miraculous event explain why many Jews were not paying attention to the resurrection of Jesus Christ, but are in hiding, scared at what was happening and going into complete denial of the event altogether?

Then again, it could have been added to scripture in the hopes of persuading the Jews at that time not to believe when they knew it did not happen.

Are there any Biblical official grave sites of Old Testament saints missing their bodies?

There is no Biblical reasoning nor prophesy that I know of that the O.T. saints had to be raised at the time Jesus did. Jesus was risen in a glorified body that we will inherit one day when He returns in bringing us Home.

Paradise aka Abraham's bosom was originally located beneath the earth across that great gulf from hell but since His ascension, it is now located in Heaven per 2 Corinthians 12:1-4 KJV

So the souls of the O.T. saints are still in Paradise but now has been brought to Heaven by Jesus Christ as in leading the captive in captivity.

Since Jesus said this to His disciples;

John 14:1Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me. 2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. 3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.

Then I would assume that He has to prepare the same place for the Old Testament saints as a bridegroom would do for both of them.

So I assume the Old Testament saints were not raised in a glorified body as Jesus is as they are still awaiting for their inheritance in that city of God that Jesus is building since His ascension. It would explain this reference for when the Old Testament saints would be sitting down with the N.T. disciples at the Marriage Supper in Heaven as a bride received to her Home by the Bridegroom.

Luke 13:24 Strive to enter in at the strait gate: for many, I say unto you, will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. 25 When once the master of the house is risen up, and hath shut to the door, and ye begin to stand without, and to knock at the door, saying, Lord, Lord, open unto us; and he shall answer and say unto you, I know you not whence ye are: 26 Then shall ye begin to say, We have eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets. 27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity.

28 There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you yourselves thrust out. 29 And they shall come from the east, and from the west, and from the north, and from the south, and shall sit down in the kingdom of God. 30 And, behold, there are last which shall be first, and there are first which shall be last.

One could apply verse 30 as this reception & inheritance is done at the time of the pre great tribulation rapture event for both O.T. saints & N.T. disciples.

But this scripture below comes to mind.....

1 Corinthians 13;9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. 11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.

So if anyone has any clues or answers or suggestions to the mystery if Matthew 27:52-53 was added to scripture, feel free to share.

As for 1 Corinthians 14:4, by itself it is contrary to the rest of scriptures in that chapter for why I am suspecting it was added since tongue speakers are not actually being edified unless that tongue is interpreted to him by another. Until it is interpreted, and therefore he does not understand it, is why it is unfruitful and therefore doubting Paul had written that verse 4 at all.

To have a conversation, keep to only a few lines at a time.

 

[donadams]

To have a conversation, keep to only a few lines at a time.

oh I agree wholeheartedly! TMI