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1 John 1: Against self-justifying doctrine

Ghada

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1 John 1 is not just against sinners saying they have no sin, but is specifically about sinners believing they have no sin condemned by God, because they name His name.

Jeremiah 2 shows this is the main source of the Lord's rebuke in 1 John 1:

Yet thou sayest, Because I am innocent, surely his anger shall turn from me. Behold, I will plead with thee, because thou sayest, I have not sinned.

It is God still pleading against His own unrepentant people beleiving God is not angry with their sinning, like that of the heathen.

The priests said not, Where is the LORD? and they that handle the law knew me not: the pastors also transgressed against me, and the prophets prophesied by Baal, and walked after things that do not profit.

Wherefore I will yet plead with you, saith the LORD, and with your children's children will I plead.


And we see the source of such hypocrisy is by changing the doctrine of the Lord to justify themselves in their transgressions.

1 John 1 is not a mandate from God for those walking in the light, to also be sinners. It is the old pleading of God against those walking in darkness in His name, who also say they are in the light.

How canst thou say, I am not polluted, I have not gone after Baalim? see thy way in the valley, know what thou hast done:

Yet thou sayest, Because I am innocent, surely his anger shall turn from me.


1 John 1 first preaches the doctrine of Christ to walk as He walked in the light, and then rejects doctrinal self-justification while walking in darkness.

For though thou wash thee with nitre, and take thee much soap, yet thine iniquity is marked before me, saith the Lord GOD.
 
1 John 1 is not just against sinners saying they have no sin, but is specifically about sinners believing they have no sin condemned by God, because they name His name.
Hypothetical sinner: "I name His name, so I am therefore a sinner who believes I have no sin condemned by God."




Before proceeding any further, please prove that premise.

Start by defining "sinner" because the atheist, God-denying, Christ-denying, sin-denying sinner is much, much different than the God-believing, in-Christ, sin-acknowledging person who sins and John's letter was not written to those who call God a liar or those in whom His word did not dwell. It was written to those John considered his "little children." Let's make sure we're not committing a fallacy of false equivalence (apples and oranges) by comparing regenerate Christians to unregenerate atheists (and vice versa).

Prove 1 John 1 is about sinners believing they have no sin condemned by God because the name His name or clarify (or amend) the opening statement so that it more accurately presents what it is you mean to say. Thanks
 
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