ChristB4us
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1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
Textus Receptus Greek Text King James Bible With Strongs Dictionary
My question for those that may have knowledge is; What is to say that "unto" in verse 2 & "to" in verse 28 should be rendered "from" instead, in regards to how this was being spoken?
I am having a hard time finding the Greek word for how they translated "unto" in verse 2 & "to" in verse 28 from.
I understand that not everything is translated well into English, and so if "unto" and "to" is assumed for how this was being done, would not "from" be just as true to how this was not being spoken as well as how this was being spoken? Mayhap true to the message being given?
I would discern that the man in verse 28 is not speaking TO himself as if he is mad, but speaking out of turn for why there is no interpretation. When you have the practice of 2 or 3 speak in tongues one by one and one interpret, a foreign visitor could very well speak out of turn, rising up and speaking for why there is no interpretation coming. And so verse 28 is Paul saying he understands what he is saying as God does too.
And so cut to verse 2, speaking in tongues, when it is manifested, it is from God and not from the man as he does not understand what is being said as it is done in the language of men that he does not understand, albeit in the Spirit, he speaks mysteries to those in the assemblies since there are no mysteries in speaking TO God.
If anyone can explain from the link provided what Greek word(s) they translated "unto" in verse 2 & "to" in verse 28, I would appreciate it.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
Textus Receptus Greek Text King James Bible With Strongs Dictionary
My question for those that may have knowledge is; What is to say that "unto" in verse 2 & "to" in verse 28 should be rendered "from" instead, in regards to how this was being spoken?
I am having a hard time finding the Greek word for how they translated "unto" in verse 2 & "to" in verse 28 from.
I understand that not everything is translated well into English, and so if "unto" and "to" is assumed for how this was being done, would not "from" be just as true to how this was not being spoken as well as how this was being spoken? Mayhap true to the message being given?
I would discern that the man in verse 28 is not speaking TO himself as if he is mad, but speaking out of turn for why there is no interpretation. When you have the practice of 2 or 3 speak in tongues one by one and one interpret, a foreign visitor could very well speak out of turn, rising up and speaking for why there is no interpretation coming. And so verse 28 is Paul saying he understands what he is saying as God does too.
And so cut to verse 2, speaking in tongues, when it is manifested, it is from God and not from the man as he does not understand what is being said as it is done in the language of men that he does not understand, albeit in the Spirit, he speaks mysteries to those in the assemblies since there are no mysteries in speaking TO God.
If anyone can explain from the link provided what Greek word(s) they translated "unto" in verse 2 & "to" in verse 28, I would appreciate it.