The Message Lost in Translation?

[ChristB4us]

Quoted from PM that I had started for open discussion with others;

"I personally hold the Aramaic Peshitta in very high regard. I am convinced the Aramaic was the original language that all of the New Testament was originally written in.

Therefore, I always check the Greek with the Aramaic text. In the two verses that you quote, it is very much saying "to" and not "from".

Analysis of Peshitta verse '1Corinthians 14:2'

Analysis of Peshitta verse '1Corinthians 14:28'" ~~~~~quoted from @eclipseEventSigns

What was provided by both links where they show the column of words from the text they had translated into English from, is not consistent with the three types of translation started above that column at each web page.

I have to question the knowledge as they have taught @eclipseEventSigns for what appears to me "fill in the words" as if they see the assumed message from the English in it which is contrary and not the actual message of what I am reading down the column.

Scripture cannot go against scripture. ! Corinthians 12:7-21 testifies that tongues or any of those gifts are NOT for private use as if they need no other member of the body of Christ for when the gifts are manifested for the body of Christ. There is no exception.

I have shared my concern regarding apostasy in these latter days in the hopes that the Lord will give anyone pause in how they "educated" translators in filling in the blanks by assuming that is the message when I am not reading that message as I go down that column in each cases; for the 1 Corinthians 14:2 and 28.

 

[ChristB4us]

Other examples of the message lost in going into English from the Greek;

Revelation 3:5 He that overcometh, the same shall be clothed in white raiment; and I will not blot out his name out of the book of life, but I will confess his name before my Father, and before his angels.

The English word "not" was translated from the Greek "ov un" which is a double negative that can be seen as He would never do that to any saved believer. This message is confirmed below.

John 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out. 38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. 39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day. 40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
The Lord has taught me that in spite of this warning to believers to be ready or else be left behind at the pre great tribulation rapture;
Luke 12:40 Be ye therefore ready also: for the Son of man cometh at an hour when ye think not. 41 Then Peter said unto him, Lord, speakest thou this parable unto us, or even to all? 42 And the Lord said, Who then is that faithful and wise steward, whom his lord shall make ruler over his household, to give them their portion of meat in due season? 43 Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. 44 Of a truth I say unto you, that he will make him ruler over all that he hath. 45 But and if that servant say in his heart, My lord delayeth his coming; and shall begin to beat the menservants and maidens, and to eat and drink, and to be drunken;

46 The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers.

47 And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. 48 But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more. 49 I am come to send fire on the earth; and what will I, if it be already kindled?

They are still His servants thus still saved but left behind for why they are getting stripes per the knowledge they had for not being ready.

This is why those who missed out on the wedding reception with the Bridegroom are of that kingdom of Heaven still.

Matthew 25:1Then shall the kingdom of heaven be likened unto ten virgins, which took their lamps, and went forth to meet the bridegroom. 2 And five of them were wise, and five were foolish.

Matthew 25:1-13 KJV <--- full parable at this link.

So there is no casting out of the kingdom of Heaven but there is a casting out as being excommunicated from attending the Marriage Supper in Heaven at the pre great tribulation rapture event when God judges His house first for why those left behind for not departing from iniquity are the vessels unto dishonor that are in His House per 2 timothy 2:19-21 and why there are leasts in the kingdom of heaven Matthew 5:19..

2 Timothy 2:19 Nevertheless the foundation of God standeth sure, having this seal, The Lord knoweth them that are his. And, let every one that nameth the name of Christ depart from iniquity. 20 But in a great house there are not only vessels of gold and of silver, but also of wood and of earth; and some to honour, and some to dishonour. 21 If a man therefore purge himself from these, he shall be a vessel unto honour, sanctified, and meet for the master's use, and prepared unto every good work.

Matthew 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

And so Jesus will never remove anyone's name out of the Book of Life BUT one can lose their part in the City of God at the rapture event.

Revelation 22:19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

So like Esau giving up his birth right for a meal and weeping bitterly for it and the prodigal son giving up his "first" inheritance for wild living and can never get it back, he will find that he is still son for why his name is still in the Book of Life.

Just one example for why and how scripture cannot go against scripture and yet the full message of Revelation 3:5 has not been fully conveyed into English from the Greek for us to see that He would never remove anyone's name from the Book of Life.

 

[ChristB4us]

Another example of the message not being fully conveyed into English is:

Luke 17:37 And they answered and said unto him, Where, Lord? And he said unto them, Wheresoever the body is, thither will the eagles be gathered together. KJV

Textus Receptus Greek Text King James Bible With Strongs Dictionary

The Greek word aetos is where eagles was translated from, but Strong's concordance has this other definition;

from the same as ahr - aer 109; an eagle (from its wind-like flight):--eagle.

Then there is that long Greek word for how they translated gathered together from in English.

sunacqhsontai

If you check the link and click on that blue Greek word third from the end of that verse, the Greek word does not look anything like the long Greek word from the mirroring verse. So is it assumed as such in English, especially when there are other definitions as below?

from sun - sun 4862 and agw - ago 71; to lead together, i.e. collect or convene; specially, to entertain (hospitably):--+ accompany, assemble (selves, together), bestow, come together, gather (selves together, up, together), lead into, resort, take in.

Now some Bible versions has switched out eagles with vultures and body with corpse and when you read the message in context, it is contrary to the message that is being given about saints not being on earth when this destruction comes.

They actually teach that Luke 17:26-37 in other Bible versions that it is about God removing the evil people from the earth.

Luke 17:26-37 KJV <----Even though the message is not clearer in the KJV for how they were gathered, the other Bible versions with the vultures instead of eagles and corpse instead of the body, are being used to give a different message that Jesus is actually giving.

And so this is another case where the message is not clear in English and I dare say something is wrong with the message in 1 Corinthians 1:2 & 1 Corinthians 14:28 for why many tongue users today believe tongues can also be for private use.

Per the links in the OP, I see everybody is assuming that message as is but by reading down the column, I am not seeing that message at all. I see an assumed message with fill in words in English to make that assumed message which is contrary to the message in 1 Corinthians 12:7-21 because none of the gifts are for private use but for use in the assembly.

1 Corinthians 12:7-21 KJV

So more than a just cause to doubt that is the message Paul had given us in 1 Corinthians 14:2,28.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

This was from a private conversation and you said you did not want to discuss publically. Remove these messages.

 

[ChristB4us]

This was from a private conversation and you said you did not want to discuss publically. Remove these messages.

If you reread the PM, I posted no such thing about not wanting this discussed publicly.

So you are mistaken and the time to edit or delete the OP has passed. Feel free to read what else I have to say about this request in PM.

 

[ChristB4us]

Anyone else can weigh in on this discussion.

Do not be afraid.

I may not agree with your belief or opinion, but if you can provide a basis for that belief or an opinion, at least I can understand it, even if I may disagree with it.

I leave the increase to God on either party, as we should in any discussion as I am here to learn and grow in the Lord as we all are.

Proverbs 27:17 Iron sharpeneth iron; so a man sharpeneth the countenance of his friend.

 

[eclipseEventSigns]

If you reread the PM, I posted no such thing about not wanting this discussed publicly.

So you are mistaken and the time to edit or delete the OP has passed. Feel free to read what else I have to say about this request in PM.

You messaged me in private and said you did not want this discussed in public. I abided by your request. You disrespect me by not asking FIRST if you can copy my replies. That is not cool.

 

[ChristB4us]

You messaged me in private and said you did not want this discussed in public. I abided by your request. You disrespect me by not asking FIRST if you can copy my replies. That is not cool.

Since you are unable to provide that post in the PM from which you claim that I had said that I did not want this discussed in public, and you had just demanded an apology, I shall apologize anyway.

I am sorry for tagging you for using the two links you had provided in the P.M. along with your comment for others to engage in.

I should have just provided the two links and not further engage you in this discussion at all.

And per your request in the P.M. I apologize for not asking you first to discuss the topic in the public forum even though this was my topic.

I never posted that I did not want this discussed in public.

The title to that PM should tell why I went to PM which was to avoid going off topic in that thread you had started.

You are welcome.

 

[ChristB4us]

1 Corinthians 14:2 Analysis of Peshitta verse

Starting at the top of the column and working my way down to how they translated that verse.

who, he who ~~ speak ~~ for ~~ tongue, language ~~ no, not ~~ be, was, turn ~~ human ~~ speak ~~ but, but rather ~~ God, god ~~ no, not ~~ for ~~ man, mankind ~~ hear, obey, hear ~~ something ~~ speak ~~ but, but rather ~~ spirit, wind, breath ~~ mystery ~~ speak

Now comparing with the 3 separate translations from Etheridge, Murdock, and Lamsa along with the KJV, I am not seeing that message.

I see he who speak in tongues, be not human speak but rather God.

I do not see any thing that justifies a particle of "unto" nor "to" God. It is not there for anyone to fill that in as such as if speaking unto or to God. The message to me is that those with the gift of tongues is not the human speaking but God is speaking. And the one that is speaking will not understand it as the Spirit speaks in mysteries.

1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

There is no particle from which "unto" is applied to men either.

When you take it in context;

1 Corinthians 14:1 Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy. 2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

Paul is exhorting believers when they desire spiritual gifts, they were to seek the gift of prophesy over all spiritual gifts and began to explain why as in because for prophesy is better than tongues, because the tongue speaker cannot understand that tongue at all even though God is speaking but in mysteries.

This is really annoying to find that certain particle were added in English that can change the entire message of what was intended from the Greek. They show every other particle but not the ones for which unto men and unto God comes from.

Paul gave the bottom line on God's gift of tongues in that same chapter; and that it was for God to speak unto the people;

1 Corinthians 14:20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men. 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.

Therefore not back unto God.

May God peradventure to deliver any from this snare of the devil for using tongues for private use but instead to pray normally so they know what they had prayed for to give the Father thanks in Jesus's name for answers to prayers which is the will of God for us to do & the devil doesn't want us to do that.

 

[ChristB4us]

1 Corinthians 14:28 Analysis of Peshitta Verse

Starting at the top of the column and working my way down to how they translated that verse.

if ~~ is not ~~ interpret, expound ~~ silent, still, silence ~~ to, for ~~ church, assembly, congregation ~~ that, those, who ~~ speak ~~ tongue, language ~~ between, among ~~ soul, breath of life, self ~~ God, god ~~ speak

Now comparing with the 3 separate translations from Etheridge, Murdock, and Lamsa along with the KJV at that link, I am not seeing that message.

I see if tongue not interpreted, they are to be silence for the church speak tongue among them selves by the Spirit of God that speaks.

In context, when you have a practice of someone speaking in tongues, one by one by course of two or three where one interprets, you are bound to have a foreigner speak out of turn for why there is no interpretation coming and that is why he is told to be silent, but I get a different message in the KJV as if no interpretation, those who speak in tongues can speak to themselves and to God and yet that is not being silent in the church.

1 Corinthians 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God. KJV

Not the message I am seeing as I go down the column at that link.

We all know how disturbing it is when the person sitting next to us is whispering for why they would be hushed so all around them could hear and in todays' world where we have a microphone and speaker system, how can anyone believe they are using tongues for private use quietly in the assembly when one by one, those actually speaking in tongues by twos and threes that is getting interpreted is God speaking back in the early church days where there is no speaker system let alone a microphone?

Meaning God is not manifesting tongues for private use in the assembly when He is manifesting tongues in this manner for the congregation to hear God speak through the Holy Spirit in them! This commandment for silence is for foreigners speaking out of turn nit realizing that the different languages being spoken is God using those languages to speak unto the people in that congregation.

To apply the KJV as it is written that it is oaky to speak in tongues to yourselves would be ignoring this verse in that same chapter.

1 Corinthians 14:23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?

No way is tongues for private use.

May God peradventure to deliver any from this snare of the devil for using tongues for private use but instead to pray normally so they know what they had prayed for to give the Father thanks in Jesus's name for answers to prayers which is the will of God for us to do & the devil doesn't want us to do that.

 

[ChristB4us]

1 Corinthians 14:4 Analysis of Peshitta Verse

Starting at the top of the column and working my way down to how they translated that verse.

speak ~~ tongue, language ~~ soul, breath of life, self ~~ he, it, is ~~ build ~~ prophesy ~~ church, assembly, congregation ~~ build

Now comparing with the 3 separate translations from Etheridge, Murdock, and Lamsa along with the KJV at that link, I am seeing that message.

1 Corinthians 14:4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church. 5 I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying. KJV

And although I see that message, I do see in context of verse 5 that unless it is interpreted, the one speaking in tongues is not edified for why Paul is comparing the two for why prophesy is better.

So kind of taken verse 4 out of context for what he meant to convey, because later on in that chapter, he gave instructions for those that speak in tongue, to pray that someone else will interpret that tongue because until it is interpreted, that tongue manifested through that tongue speaker by the Spirit, will be fruitless to the tongue speaker until it is interpreted, seeing how he does not understand it.

6 Now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine? 7 And even things without life giving sound, whether pipe or harp, except they give a distinction in the sounds, how shall it be known what is piped or harped? 8 For if the trumpet give an uncertain sound, who shall prepare himself to the battle? 9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air. 10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification. 11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.

12 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.

13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. 14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. 15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.

So those speaking in tongues is not actually self edified until it is interpreted for why prophesy is better than tongues for prophesy edifies the speaker and those around him right away whereas an interpreter has to make that tongue fruitful even to the tongue speaker.

tongue speakers that takes verse 4 out of context to imply that tongues are for private use are ignoring how the tongue speaker is to pray that another will interpret that tongue so he will understand it for that tongue to be fruitful to himself.

Otherwise, to apply verse 4 as is, then why should a tongue speaker by his spirit pray for interpretation while the Holy Spirit is manifesting tongues through him if he is truly being self edified if we take verse 4 out of context of that chapter of why Paul was exhorting the gift of prophesy over tongues to eek after over all spiritual gifts?

 

[ChristB4us]

Evidence of Adding to Scripture?

At that link to that thread, is addressing the evidence of someone adding to scripture per the example of Matthew 27:52-53.

Here is a clue that those 2 verses were added to scripture by the reasoning of verse 54.

Matthew 27:50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. 51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.

The centurion and those that were with him, while watching Jesus having died and the earthquake had happened, could not have witnessed verses 52-53 since that event happened after the resurrection of Jesus Christ as stated in verse 53.

It is inconsistent and contrary to the read of the events in that chapter.

Since there is evidence of removing scripture per the example of 1 John 5:7 at this link;

IS 1 JOHN 5:7 NOT IN ANY GREEK MANUSCRIPT BEFORE THE 1600S? IF IT IS TRUE, WHY IS IT IN THE KJV?

As there is extra-Biblical evidence of 1 John 5:7 being originally scripture dating far back as 200 A.D. located halfway down that web page;

I have to wonder if 1 Corinthians 14:4 was added to the manuscript since it is inconsistent with what Paul is saying about tongues through out that chapter because how can he be self edified when he is to pray that someone else will interpret that tongue for him to understand it so that tongue will be fruitful to himself and not just to others around him?

And by adding that to the manuscript, the people translating it from the Greek to English added words to verses 2 and 28 and thus changing the messages there as well.

Isaiah 28:9 Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. 10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: 11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people. 12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear. 13 But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.

2 Peter 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; 16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction. 17 Ye therefore, beloved, seeing ye know these things before, beware lest ye also, being led away with the error of the wicked, fall from your own stedfastness.

Maybe 1 Corinthians 14:4 was added to scripture or maybe it was a comparison by Paul to see why prophesy is better than tongues but yet tongues does not really edify self and so it is not true. It cannot be an allegory or some exaggerated example of tongues like Paul had written earlier in that epistle;

1 Corinthians 13:1Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal. 2 And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing. 3 And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, and have not charity, it profiteth me nothing.

There are no scripture of any of His disciples speaking in tongues to speak unto angels and so this is an exaggeration to convey how important having love is for surely Paul did not have all knowledge & can remove mountains nor had he given his body to be burned after giving all that he has to give to the poor when he is writing this epistle; and so another form f exaggeration to convey how important love is.

But I see no need to apply 1 Corinthians 14:4 as an exaggeration to convey any point about prophesy being better than tongues when by itself, is an outright lie because they are not really being self edified unless it is interpreted.

I can see when read in context that believers will wrest the scriptures and take it out of context to wit they claim tongues for private use, but I fail to see why Paul would write it in that way at all which makes me think those wresting the scripture succeeded in having that added to the scripture from which the original did not have it as verse 4 at all.

I believe Jesus meant that those who hear His voice will hear His words & not follow a stranger's voice at all, regardless of that verse 4 since in context of that chapter, it has to be interpreted for that tongue speaker to understand it for that tongue to be fruitful to himself thus edified.

 

[EarlyActs]

Evidence of Adding to Scripture?

At that link to that thread, is addressing the evidence of someone adding to scripture per the example of Matthew 27:52-53.

Here is a clue that those 2 verses were added to scripture by the reasoning of verse 54.

Matthew 27:50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. 51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.

The centurion and those that were with him, while watching Jesus having died and the earthquake had happened, could not have witnessed verses 52-53 since that event happened after the resurrection of Jesus Christ as stated in verse 53.

It is inconsistent and contrary to the read of the events in that chapter.

Since there is evidence of removing scripture per the example of 1 John 5:7 at this link;

IS 1 JOHN 5:7 NOT IN ANY GREEK MANUSCRIPT BEFORE THE 1600S? IF IT IS TRUE, WHY IS IT IN THE KJV?

As there is extra-Biblical evidence of 1 John 5:7 being originally scripture dating far back as 200 A.D. located halfway down that web page;

I have to wonder if 1 Corinthians 14:4 was added to the manuscript since it is inconsistent with what Paul is saying about tongues through out that chapter because how can he be self edified when he is to pray that someone else will interpret that tongue for him to understand it so that tongue will be fruitful to himself and not just to others around him?

And by adding that to the manuscript, the people translating it from the Greek to English added words to verses 2 and 28 and thus changing the messages there as well.

Isaiah 28:9 Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. 10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: 11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people. 12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear. 13 But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.

2 Peter 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; 16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction. 17 Ye therefore, beloved, seeing ye know these things before, beware lest ye also, being led away with the error of the wicked, fall from your own stedfastness.

Maybe 1 Corinthians 14:4 was added to scripture or maybe it was a comparison by Paul to see why prophesy is better than tongues but yet tongues does not really edify self and so it is not true. It cannot be an allegory or some exaggerated example of tongues like Paul had written earlier in that epistle;

1 Corinthians 13:1Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal. 2 And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing. 3 And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, and have not charity, it profiteth me nothing.

There are no scripture of any of His disciples speaking in tongues to speak unto angels and so this is an exaggeration to convey how important having love is for surely Paul did not have all knowledge & can remove mountains nor had he given his body to be burned after giving all that he has to give to the poor when he is writing this epistle; and so another form f exaggeration to convey how important love is.

But I see no need to apply 1 Corinthians 14:4 as an exaggeration to convey any point about prophesy being better than tongues when by itself, is an outright lie because they are not really being self edified unless it is interpreted.

I can see when read in context that believers will wrest the scriptures and take it out of context to wit they claim tongues for private use, but I fail to see why Paul would write it in that way at all which makes me think those wresting the scripture succeeded in having that added to the scripture from which the original did not have it as verse 4 at all.

I believe Jesus meant that those who hear His voice will hear His words & not follow a stranger's voice at all, regardless of that verse 4 since in context of that chapter, it has to be interpreted for that tongue speaker to understand it for that tongue to be fruitful to himself thus edified.

While it can be hard to figure these questions out, we should not lose sight of the in-person training Jesus gave in the 40 days and the 20 some OT passages that he focused on, as found in the earliest chapters of Acts (many Romans and Gal quotes of the same). That material is his "voice." There are perhaps unsafe limbs that people go out on in the written record.

 

[ChristB4us]

While it can be hard to figure these questions out, we should not lose sight of the in-person training Jesus gave in the 40 days and the 20 some OT passages that he focused on, as found in the earliest chapters of Acts (many Romans and Gal quotes of the same). That material is his "voice." There are perhaps unsafe limbs that people go out on in the written record.

Since you studied the Greek, due to 2 Timothy 2:18, and Peter's citing such incidents that believers that err, already wrest the scriptures;

2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. 16 But shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase unto more ungodliness. 17 And their word will eat as doth a canker: of whom is Hymenaeus and Philetus; 18 Who concerning the truth have erred, saying that the resurrection is past already; and overthrow the faith of some.

2 Peter 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; 16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction. 17 Ye therefore, beloved, seeing ye know these things before, beware lest ye also, being led away with the error of the wicked, fall from your own stedfastness.

Could Matthew 27:52-53 was inserted & this added into scripture since it reads as out of place per Matthew 27:54 as the centurion is still looking at Jesus on the cross?

Matthew 27:50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. 51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.

This would lead credence that believers were adding to Paul's words in 1 Corinthians 14th chapter for why many believe tongues can self edify the tongue speaker per verse 4 which cannot be true by itself, when in that chapter, Paul is instructing believers that speak in tongue to pray that someone may interpret that tongue so that the tongue speaker may understand that tongue for that tongue to be fruitful to himself.

Since Paul in 2 Timothy 2:15-18 was rebuking those who use tongues for self edification instead of sticking to the written scriptures, it appears those who use tongues for private use back then were prophesying that the resurrection had already happened and according to Peter, have already been tampering with the written scriptures even back then. Sure looks like it.