“For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.“
The promise of inheritance is by faith and not of the law. If it came by the law, faith would be negated.
Agreed. But that isn't what you said. I quote you: "The passage itself says that the promise was set aside and voided by the Law." and that isn't true. Glad I/we didn't have to agree with it and be trapped.
So back to your post—with correction:
EarlyActs said:
The essential issue is ‘what did Gal 3 mean by the promise?’
The passage itself says that the promise was set aside and voided by the Law. [if the promise came by the law, faith would be negated]. And Paul would not have us under the Law.
So: what is—what does the text say is the promise?
Next question needing clarity, just so you don't think that if I/we answer according to your preface to the question that we agree with the terms: What do you mean by, "
And Paul would not have us under the Law." Paul? You mean God, writing by Paul's pen, would not have us under the Law? I don't mean to be an ass or nit-picky. I'm trying to figure out what Paul has to do with this, and if that figures into your question, "
what does the text say is the promise?" If you only reference Paul because it is his discourse and sequence of reasoning, then, ok.
If that is all you mean, it is obvious he would not have us under the law, but why do you say so?
Meanwhile: "
The law, introduced 430 years later (after the promise to Abraham)
, does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise." That should answer your question, as to what the text says the promise is. The promise is contained within, or at least contingent on, the covenant, which requires that the covenant be defined/identified, and how it contains or is causal concerning the promise. And if the promise IS the covenant, then the covenant needs defined, in detail.
