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About the "perfect" in 1 Corinthians 13:10

Dave

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13:8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.

We have two Greek verbs being used here.

"katargeo" This is the Greek verb used to describe what will happen to prophecy and knowledge. "fail", "vanish away"

"pauo" This is the Greek verb being used to describe what will happen to tongues. "cease"

"katargeo" means to "reduce to inactivity" or to "abolish" Both forms of the verb in verse 8 , and in verse 10, are passive; that is, something or someone will cause them to stop. That something is the coming of the "Perfect".

"pauo" means "to stop, to come to an end". Which when used of persons, indicates intentional, voluntary action upon oneself. Used of inanimate objects it indicates reflexive, self-causing action. The cause comes from within; it is built in.

So we have two different ways of these three gifts being stopped. The gifts of prophecy and knowledge will stop when the "perfect comes". The gift of tongues will cause itself to stop.

Note; in 13:9-13, tongues are not mentioned. Also note the emboldened words.** added for emphasis.

13:9 For we *know* in part, and we *prophesy* in part. (no tongues)

13:10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. (Note; that only the verb katargeo is used here. "done away")

13:11When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. 13 And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity


Does the closed cannon of scripture equal the perfect? From MacArthur's NT commentary.

A) That idea would have been meaningless to the Corinthians. Nowhere in this letter (1 Corinthians) does Paul mention or allude to such a scriptural completion (Rev. Does). Spiritual and moral perfection would have been the way they would have taken that. (Math.5:48) Completed holiness, our one day becoming what God now counts or reckons us to be.

B) If the perfect refers to the completion of Scripture, Then prophecy and knowledge have already been stopped, the two most important gifts for proclaiming, interpreting, and understanding Scripture. (The gift of prophecy was only partly used for revelation)

C) Prophecy will be active in the Kingdom age. (Joel 2:28; Acts 2:17).

D) Prior to the Kingdom, during the Tribulation, God will raise up two great prophetic witnesses who "Will prophecy for twelve hundred and sixty days, clothed in sackcloth". (Rev. 11:3)

E) We will see "face to face" (1 Cor.13:12).

F) No Christian, before or after the completion of the New Testament has known the Lord as he has "been fully known".

G) The verb "katargeo" means to be abolished completely and finally. An interruption of prophecy would not fit Paul's point here, which is to show the permanency of love over the temporariness of gifts. (For those who believe it will stop and then start again)

All other popular interpretations of "the perfect" Must pass the test, which eliminates the rapture, the maturing Church, and the second coming. The "perfect" is the eternal, heavenly state of believers. The eternal state allows for the neuter form of the "perfect" and allows for the continuation of knowledge and prophecy during the church age, the tribulation, and the kingdom. It fits the context of Paul's emphasis on the permanence of love. It also fits his mention of our then seeing "face to face", which will come about only with our glorification, when we will be illumined by the very glory of God Himself (Rev. 21:23). Finally, again, only in heaven will we "Know fully just as [we] also have been fully known" (1 Cor. 13:12). (Macarthur's NT commentaries)

Dave
 
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